Questions and Answers
John 1:1 tells us that the “Word” was God. The “Word” is a reference Jesus Christ, the Son of God, We This is apparently correct. The historical background of the design “December 8 is a very special day for Europe: “Recently Heitz revealed to a French “According to Javier Perhaps no other single event captures the focus of religionists In spite of what people concoct in their own Let’s see what God reveals in His Scientists With that perspective in mind, consider that the In this Indeed there are numerous examples of resurrections, both in the Old (Español: ¿Cómo se puede demostrar realmente lo que enseña la Biblia?) The original writings of the Bible are, in fact, God’s infallible Word. However, in the face of such myriads of beliefs—all claiming the Bible as their source, most people dismiss the real authority of the Book that God has inspired. Both Catholics and Protestants use the Bible as the basis for what they believe and teach. Various translations and versions of the Bible are available, and these differing accounts do reflect the bias of those organizations and individuals who have authored them. However, the Bible transcends both language and translation issues. For example, consider the record found in Acts 2, where the disciples on the Day of Pentecost were led by God’s Holy Spirit to proclaim the Gospel. In particular, note what occurred for those who heard this message: “Then they were all amazed and marveled, saying to one another, ‘Look, are not all these who speak Galileans? And how is it that we HEAR, EACH IN OUR OWN LANGUAGE IN WHICH WE WERE BORN? Parthians and Medes and Elamites, those dwelling in Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, Phrygia and Pamhylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya adjoining Cyrene,… As we point out in our booklet, “Teach Us To Pray!”, Christ’s Another additional extremely Generally, God has shown us His Will for When trying to understand Biblical prophecy, it is critical that we are familiar with the meaning of certain key prophetic phrases. For instance, all these terms listed in the Question have a FUTURE prophetic application. This means that when we read a passage in the Old or New Testament, which uses one of these phrases, we should recognize that the passage refers to the future! Here is an overview of the meaning of these phrases: When we come across the term “the latter days” (in Hebrew, “acharith” for “latter”), we are being introduced to events which will happen at the end of this age or present civilization, including the first resurrection or the “resurrection of the just,” and the beginning of the Millennium. After a powerful Spirit being had given Daniel an important vision, he told him, in Daniel 10:14: “Now I have come to make you understand what will happen to your people in the LATTER DAYS, for the vision refers to many days yet to come.” Ancient King Nebuchadnezzar had a dream once, and Daniel told him, in Daniel 2:28: “But there is a God in heaven who reveals secrets, and He has made known to King Nebuchadnezzar what will be in the LATTER DAYS.” The events pictured in his dream would culminate in… The answer is that the bride will ultimately involve many more First of all, Jesus Christ is presented as Note, as Jesus presented this example of John In Matthew 5:21-22, Jesus speaks about literal murder as well as feelings and expressions of hate. The passage reads as follows: “You have heard that it was said to those of old, ‘You shall not murder, and whoever murders will be in danger of the judgment.’ But I say to you that whoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment. And whoever says to his brother, ‘Raca!’ [Margin: Lit, in Aram., Empty head] shall be in danger of the council. But whoever says, ‘You fool!’ shall be in danger of hell [Margin: Gr. Gehenna] fire.” As seen above, the New King James Bible, as well as most translations, render the last expression as “fool.” However, as this word is understood today by the common reader, it does not seem to be much worse than the term “Raca” (i.e., “empty head”). Why, then, the strong difference in potential judgment? Some commentaries and Others equate the word for “fool” with “child of hell” or “profane.” Some say, “godless person,” or, “go to hell.” Vine’s Expository Dictionary… The Bible clearly prohibits the consumption of animal meat which it describes as “unclean” in Old and New Testament passages (such as Leviticus 11:1-47; Deuteronomy 14:3-20; and Acts 10:1-21, 28). For more information on this prohibition, please read our free booklet, “And Lawlessness Will Abound.” According to the Biblical designation, certain animals are considered “clean” and their meat is therefore appropriate for human consumption (compare, for example, Leviticus 11:3: “Among the animals…that you may eat…”). Although some have chosen to abstain from the consumption of animal meat, it should be noted that such a teaching, if adhered to and followed for RELIGIOUS reasons, is described in Scripture as a doctrine of demons, compare 1 Timothy 4:1-3. We can safely say that the following animal meat constitutes food that may be eaten. We will not attempt to list ALL clean and unclean animals, but will list the more common ones. As a general rule, if in doubt whether or not the flesh of a particular animal may be eaten, we should refrain from doing so, as “he who doubts is condemned if he eats, because he does not eat from faith; for whatever is not from faith is sin” (Romans 14:23). INSECTS AND…The Bible teaches that Christ became flesh at His First Coming. Yet you say that Christ already appeared as a human being in Old Testament times. Did He already become flesh on those occasions? Was He still flesh–or did He change to flesh–after His resurrection?
to Jesus Christ (compare Revelation 19:13; 1 John 1:1-3). John 1:14
tells us that Jesus Christ, the “Word,” “became flesh and dwelt among
us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the
Father, full of grace and truth.”
existed as a God being long before the events took place, which are
described in John 1:14–that is, long before He “became flesh.”
Philippians 2:5-11 tells us that Christ, who was “in the form of God,”
took “the form of a bond servant” and came “in the likeness of men.”
Hebrews 2:14 confirms that Jesus partook of flesh and blood, so that He
could die. As long as He was an immortal Spirit being, He could not die.
are told that God the Father made everything through Jesus Christ
(Hebrews 2:10; Colossians 1:15-17). We also read that no one has ever
seen God at any time (John 1:18). Christ elaborated to explain that no
one has ever seen the form of the FATHER at any time, nor has anyone
ever heard His voice (John 5:37; 6:46). And…Is it true that the design of the European flag has been adopted from a picture of the "Virgin Mary"?
of the European flag, and its biblical significance, is quite
interesting. The Catholic News Agency, Zenit, wrote the following on
December 7, 1999:
in 1955, on that day, the European Ministers’ delegates officially
adopted the European flag designed by Arsene Heitz… The decision was
taken following the 1950 European Council’s… convocation of a
competition to design the flag of the newborn European Community…: 12
stars on a blue background.
magazine the reason for his inspiration. At that time he was reading
the history of the Blessed Virgin’s apparitions in Paris’ Rue du Bac,
known today as the Virgin of the Miraculous Medal. According to the
artist, he thought of the 12 stars in a circle on a blue background,
exactly the way it is represented in traditional iconography of this
image of the Immaculate Conception…
Paredes, Professor of Contemporary History at the University of Alcala
in Spain, in statements sent to ZENIT, ‘Heitz listens to God in his
interior; in other words, he prays with his heart and his head. He says
he is profoundly…Does God work out His Master Plan for Man according to a pre-determined time table?
more than that of the return of Jesus Christ. From the first generation
of the Church of God until now, people have been utterly convinced that
Christ would return in their own lifetime. That has led some into
bitter disappointment and even an absolute abandonment and rejection of
their faith!
imaginations, is God actually working out His plan according to a
pre-determined time line?
written Word, and in doing so, let the Bible teach us a true
understanding and a balanced perspective on this important question.
have examined the make-up of this universe, and in their quests, they
have gained remarkable insight about the physical creation of God. One
extraordinary discovery is the approximate age of the universe—about 14
billion years!
Bible introduces God’s creation of mankind, and this event is but a
tiny moment in time from the galactic standpoint.
beginning period for the creation that God accomplished that is
associated with man, we find that the earth, the solar system and the
heavens were already…Hebrews 9:27 states that "it is appointed for men to die once, but after this the judgment." But aren’t there several instances in the Bible where some were resurrected to life and died again? They did not enter into judgment after they died the first time–did they?
and the New Testament! For instance, 2 Kings 13:21 relates the record
of a dead person who “revived and stood on his feet,” when the bones of
Elisha touched him. There was no magic associated with Elisha’s bones
but it was a demonstration of God’s power and His approval of
Elisha–showing that he died as a servant of God, even though he died
from a sickness (verse 14). Also, John 11:38-44 records the story of
the resurrection of Lazarus who had been dead for several days. We also
read, in Luke 8:49-56, that Christ brought a dead girl back to life. In
the case of the young girl, we read that Christ commanded the parents
“that she be given something to eat” (verse 55) — proving that this
was a resurrection to physical life, as immortal beings have no need to
eat physical food. And after Jesus had died and was resurrected to
immortality, “the graves were opened and many bodies of the saints who
had fallen asleep were raised” (Matthew 27:52; compare verse 53).
However, all of these were resurrections to temporary physical
lives–not to eternal, immortal life.…How can you really prove what the Bible teaches?
Would you please explain Mark 11:24. We are told in this passage that we will receive from God all things, if we only believe. Is this promise conditional, and if it is, what are those conditions?
promise in Mark 11:24 is indeed subject to several conditions. In this
passage, Christ is emphasizing the absolute necessity of manifesting
living, unwavering and obedient faith in our lives (compare verses
22-23). Without faith that God will do what we ask Him for, we cannot
expect to receive anything from Him (compare James 1:6-8). But godly
faith alone is not sufficient, either. As explained in our booklet,
additional necessary aspects of successful prayer include the need to
ask; to ask in faith; to pray boldly; to keep God’s Commandments; to
bear the right kind of Christian fruit in our lives; to pray in
Christ’s name; and to pray always.
important and all-encompassing condition for successful prayer is the
necessity to pray in accordance with God’s Will (1 John 5:14). This
requires that we learn to understand and agree with God’s Will for us
(Ephesians 5:17; Romans 12:2). In other words, God must reveal His Will
to us (Ephesians 1:9).
us. God wills that we live godly lives (1 Thessalonians 4:3, 7) and
inherit His Kingdom (compare Luke 12:32). We…Would you please explain the meaning of the terms, "latter days," "last days," "time of the end," "end of the world," "day of the LORD," "in that day," and the "time of Jacob’s trouble."
The LATTER DAYSWho is the bride? When the Bible speaks of the “bride,” is it only in reference to the saints who will be in the first resurrection?
than those who are given eternal life in the first resurrection. A
review of this topic will reveal just what the Bible means when it
refers to the “bride.”
the bridegroom in many examples. Even at His appearance as a human and
before His death, Jesus spoke of Himself as the “bridegroom” (Luke
5:34-35). In this account, Jesus taught that He would be taken away and
that no “marriage” would be consummated at that time.
well, that Jesus gave a parable indicating that He, as the bridegroom,
would return (Compare Matthew 25:1-13). In this story, Jesus began His
teaching with these very important words: “‘The kingdom of heaven shall
be LIKENED to ten virgins who took their lamps and went out to meet the
bridegroom’” (Matthew 25:1).
bridegroom and virgins (that is, the bride) to instruct His Church to
be ready for His return. Most importantly, the Church was to remain
vigilant and not let God’s Holy Spirit (the “oil” for their lamps) fade
out of their lives! He would only marry those who were ready.
More »Would you please explain Matthew 5:21-22? Why are there distinctions in judgments and penalties, and what do they mean?
translations admit that they don’t really know what the word means, which they render “fool.” Some say, one cannot translate this word.Would you please explain which animals are clean (and may be eaten) and which are unclean (and must not be eaten)?