Q&As

Questions and Answers

Would you please explain 1 Timothy 1:18. What were the “prophecies” pertaining to Timothy?

In 1 Timothy 1:18-19, Paul says the following: 

“This charge I commit to you, son Timothy, according to the prophecies previously made concerning you, that by them you may wage the good warfare, having faith and a good conscience, which some having rejected, concerning the faith have suffered shipwreck…” 

As we pointed out in a previous Q&A about “prophets” in God’s Church today, the concept of “prophecy” and “prophet” does not have to relate to the future, but can include or refer to “inspired” teaching and preaching. We stated the following: 

“… there are most certainly ‘prophets’ in God’s Church today who preach with godly inspiration and who speak on prophecies which are recorded in the Bible. God might also give some of His servants special insight today into prophetic events and details, which might not be specifically mentioned in Scripture, but which would be in line with prophecies contained in the Bible.”

Regarding Paul’s statement about prophecies concerning Timothy, it does not appear that Paul was referring to particular and specific future revelations about Timothy, but rather, he was alluding to God’s inspiration in ordaining Timothy to the office of a minister and an Evangelist. In Timothy’s case, it is possible that…

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Why Has God allowed Satan to appear before Him in heaven, as mentioned in Revelation 12:10?

The twelfth chapter of the Book of Revelation contains some focal points in the vast role Satan has held in God’s government. In particular, verse 4 reveals the first rebellion of Satan and one-third of the angels who followed him (called “ruler of the demons” in Mark 3:22). This verse also clearly establishes the adversarial position of Satan against “the Child”—Jesus Christ—and “the woman.”

We stated the following about the “woman” in our free booklet, “Is That in the Bible? The Mysteries of the Book of Revelation,” page 78: 

“The woman is pictured as being clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet, and with a garland of 12 stars on her head (Revelation 12:1). In Genesis 37:9–11, Jacob and his wife Rachel, Joseph’s mother, are symbolized as the sun and the moon, and Joseph’s brothers are symbolized as eleven stars, bowing down to Joseph. It appears, therefore, to be very plausible that the TWELVE stars in Revelation 12:1 refer to the TWELVE tribes of Israel (including Joseph).

“Revelation 12:2–5 refers to the fact that Mary gave birth to Jesus Christ and that Satan attempted unsuccessfully to kill Christ through King Herod (Revelation 12:4; Matthew 2:13, 16).

“We understand that the woman…

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Could you please explain Isaiah 45:7? In what way does God create evil?

In the Authorized Version, Isaiah 45:7 reads as follows:

“I form the light, and create darkness; I make peace, and create evil. I the LORD do all these things.”

First, let us briefly focus on the word, “create.” It is “bara” in Hebrew and means, “bringing something into existence which did not exist before.” The word is used in Genesis 1:1, revealing that God created the heavens and the earth. Hebrews 11:3 elaborates that the worlds (the universe as well as the earth) “were framed by the word of God, so that the things which are seen were not made of things which are visible.”

The Hebrew word for “evil” is “ra” and can have several meanings. In the Authorized Version, it is translated over 400 times as “evil,” but it is also rendered, among others, as “adversity” (Ecclesiastes 7:14; Psalm 94:13); “affliction” (Psalm 34:19; 107:39; Obadiah 13); “calamity” (Psalm 141:5); “distress” (Nehemiah 2:17); “grief” (Jonah 4:6); “harm” (Genesis 31:52; Numbers 35:23; Proverbs 3:30; Jeremiah 39:12); “hurt” (Genesis 26:29; 31:29; Psalm 38:12; 70:2; 71:13, 24; Ecclesiasts 8:9; Jeremiah 7:6; 24:9; 25:7; 38:4); “mischief” (Exodus 32:22; Nehemiah 6:2; Hosea 7:15); and “trouble” (Psalm 27:5; 41:1; Jeremiah 2:27-28; 11:12, 14; Lamentations 1;21).…

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Could you please explain Matthew 5:19 where Christ says that certain people will be “least” in God’s Kingdom. Will they be in the Kingdom or not?

Here are Christ’s words, in context, quoted from Matthew 5:17-19:

“Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.”

First, we would recommend that you read or re-read our Q&A on the issue as to what Christ meant with His statement that He came to fulfill the Law. We point out that Christ did NOT come to abolish the Law—referring to the spiritual Law of the Ten Commandments and the statutes and judgments which explain the Law. Rather, He came to magnify the Law and fill it up with its intended spiritual meaning.

But what did Christ mean when He said that those who break one of God’s least commandments and teach men to do likewise will be called least in the…

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Are there any true prophets in God’s Church today?

It depends on what is meant by the term, “prophet.”

Smith’s Bible Dictionary describes a biblical prophet as follows:

“The ordinary Hebrew word for prophet is nabi, derived from a verb signifying ‘to bubble forth’ like a fountain; hence the word means one who announces or pours forth the declarations of God. The English word comes from the Greek prophetes (profetes), which signifies in classical Greek one who speaks for another, especially one who speaks for a god, and so interprets his will to man; hence its essential meaning is ‘an interpreter.’”

Easton’s Bible Dictionary explains:

“(Hebrews nabi, from a root meaning ‘to bubble forth, as from a fountain,’ hence ‘to utter’, Comp. Psalm 45:1). This Hebrew word is the first and the most generally used for a prophet. In the time of Samuel another word, ro’eh, ‘seer’, began to be used (1 Samuel 9:9). It occurs seven times in reference to Samuel. Afterwards another word, hozeh, ‘seer’ (2 Samuel 24:11), was employed. In 1 Ch. 29:29 all these three words are used: ‘Samuel the seer (ro’eh), Nathan the prophet (nabi’), Gad the seer’ (hozeh). In Joshua 13:22 Balaam is called (Hebrews) a kosem ‘diviner,’ [the new King James Bible says here, “soothsayer”] a…

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Would you please explain your understanding of the Bible’s teaching on quarantine, and how it is to be applied today?

The Bible is an instruction manual for mankind on a whole raft of issues and can be extremely useful in helping us with matters that might otherwise go unheeded.  One principle that seems to be ignored in general today is the Quarantine Principle.   Quarantine is defined in the Concise Oxford Dictionary as: Period of isolation imposed on voyagers, travellers, sick persons – that might spread contagious disease.

The Bible has much to say about quarantine and leprosy which was highly contagious and is covered in some detail.  However, the same principles apply about colds, flu, sore throats and other infectious and contagious diseases which can equally and easily be spread – thus inconveniencing and causing problems to others.

Let us look briefly at leprosy and how this was dealt with.  We read in Leviticus 13:4: “But if the bright spot iswhite on the skin of his body, and does not appear to be deeper than the skin, and its hair has not turned white, then the priest shall isolate the one who has the sore seven days.”

Further on in the same chapter, we read: “Now the leper on whom the sore is, his clothes shall be torn and his head bare; and…

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Should Christians use symbols which are used by pagans?

Some feel that because pagans might use certain symbols, Christians are prohibited from using them. This, however, is an erroneous conclusion. For instance, some wonder whether true Christians ought to use the symbol of the heart.

In this regard, the following correct answer was given by the Letter Answering Department of the Worldwide Church of God, shortly after the death of its human leader, Herbert W. Armstrong:

“You asked whether there is any biblical prohibition against using the symbol of the heart, since it is often associated with the pagan observance of Valentine’s Day. We should remember that it is God who made the heart. Reference is made to it many times in the Bible. God uses this organ as a SYMBOL of our attitude and thoughts, for example.

“The pagans merely adopted a stylized drawing of a heart as a symbol in their worship, as for Valentine’s Day. In fact, a number of other objects in God’s creation have been treated in a similar manner. But, the misuse of an object by this or that group, even if the people are atheistic, should not prohibit a Christian from putting it to a proper use. Based on this principle, it is not wrong…

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When we ask God for healing and are not healed, does this mean that we don’t have enough faith?

The question of sickness and healing has confused many people. Some don’t believe in godly healing; others claim that given enough faith, God will heal every sickness in this life. Some carry with them feelings of guilt, as they prayed to God for healing and were not healed, concluding that the reason must be their fault and their lack of faith. Some conclude that if we prayed to God for healing “in accordance with” or “subject to” His Will, this would already signify our doubt in God’s intervention. Some say that when Paul asked God for healing (compare 2 Corinthians 12:7-10), Paul did not really have the faith that God would heal him. They make the same argument regarding Elisha (2 Kings 13:14, 20-21), stating that Elisha was not healed because he did not have the faith that he would be healed.

We should be able to see that these conclusions cannot possibly be correct. To suggest that Paul and Elisha did not have enough faith in God’s healing is absolutely wrong. But those ideas show the confusion some people have regarding this often-misunderstood topic of sickness and healing.

It is true, of course, that when we are sick, God commands us…

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In a previous Q&A, which addressed how Christ became a Man, you mentioned that Jesus Christ was the “only-SO-begotten” Son of God. What do you mean by this term? Doesn’t the Bible talk about the “only begotten” Son of God?

It is absolutely correct that Jesus Christ is referred to, in English translations of the Bible, as the “only begotten” Son of God.

We read in John 1:17-18:

“For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.”

This passage addresses the fact that Jesus Christ came to reveal the Father and the spiritual intent of the law, and that He made forgiveness of sin possible. He is referred to as the “only begotten Son” (some translate, the only begotten God), being in the “bosom” of God the Father, thereby showing the intimate and close relationship between the two members of the God Family.

In John 3:16, a similar statement is made:

“For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life.”

We can only obtain salvation and eternal life through Jesus Christ—the “only begotten Son”—and as one initial step, we must believe in His Sacrifice. But His death does not save us; we will be saved by His Life which He…

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Who is “the man of sin” mentioned in 2 Thessalonians 2:3?

The Bible reveals many astounding details concerning events which will take place at the time of the end!  One such example is a prophecy about the fate of two individuals who are mentioned several times in the Word of God. What is said about them will help us answer exactly who “the man of sin” is:

“Then the beast was captured, and with him the false prophet who worked signs in his presence, by which he deceived those who received the mark of the beast and those who worshiped his image. These two were cast alive into the lake of fire burning with brimstone” (Revelation 19:20).

First to be identified is “the beast” and then “the false prophet.” This false prophet performs miraculous signs in support of the beast. The relationship finds an antecedent in Pharaoh with his sorcerers and magicians when Moses and Aaron appeared before them (compare Exodus 7:11, 22; 8:7, 18).

The beast is a domineering political leader controlling the military of many nations, while the false prophet serves him through a powerful religious office—all under the influence of Satan. These two men are also mentioned in the prophecies found in Revelation 13.

In the beginning verses of this chapter, a…

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