Questions and Answers
Q: Would you please explain 1 Corinthians 9:20-21? A: 1 Corinthians 9:20-21 is one of those Scriptures that has been used by some for the support of their false claim that Paul no longer taught obedience to God’s law. This is, however, not at all what Paul was saying here. Let us read, in context, the entire passage of 1 Corinthians 9:19-23: “(Verse 19) For though I am free from all men, I have made myself a servant to all, that I might win the more; (verse 20) and to the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might win Jews; to those who are under the law, as under the law, that I might win those who are under the law; (verse 21) to those who are without law, as without law (not being without law toward God, but under law toward Christ), that I might win those who are without law; (verse 22) to the weak I became as weak, that I might win the weak. I have become all things to all men, that I might by all means save some. (verse 23) Now this I do for the gospel’s sake, that I may be partaker of it with… A: In Revelation 3:7-8, Christ tells the angel of the church in Philadelphia: “These things says He who is holy, He who is true, ‘He who has the key of David, He who opens and no one shuts, and shuts and no one opens’: … ‘See I have set before you an open door, and no one can shut it.'” Whatever that open door is, it is still open for those who belong to the church in Philadelphia. “The church in Philadelphia” is mainly a reference here to faithful Christians who have developed in their lives a “Philadelphian spirit” or attitude — as applied to us today, it does not refer to a specific local church or particular organization. Those are simply Scripturally wrong who claim that they — as an organization — are THE remnant of the Philadelphia era. Christ makes clear that it is He who opens and shuts. To the church in Philadelphia, He specifically says, “I have set before YOU an open door, and NO ONE can shut it.” What is this open door? (1) At least four Scriptures explain that the term “open door” refers to the ability of the church in Philadelphia to preach the gospel in… A: We should realize that members over the years, in following Church teaching, have declared bankruptcy. Bankruptcy is a recognized and legal means in this world to free oneself from debts, under certain circumstances. Court decisions have been rendered, involving Church members, dealing with questions regarding tithes and offerings in bankruptcy procedures. Certain state laws allow churches to keep tithes, up to a certain amount and percentage, which were received from members who subsequently filed for bankruptcy. More importantly, the Bible endorses the concept of declaring bankruptcy in certain circumstances. What is the biblical basis for the Church’s long-standing teaching that the declaration of bankruptcy is not against Scripture, under certain circumstances? We have always taught that bankruptcy is not to be taken lightly, but that it is a very serious matter. Normally, a person should do everything he or she can to pay back any debts incurred by him (2 Kings 4:7), or to at least try to arrange an extension of time with the creditors. There are unforeseen circumstances, however, which justify and sometimes even necessitate the declaration of bankruptcy. These circumstances might involve debts incurred in a business transaction, inherited debts, unexpected debts, or even incorrect allegations, falsely claiming… It is, of course, true that the Bible teaches that we must change, and that Jesus Christ does not accept us “as we are.” Our new booklet, “Baptism — a Requirement for Salvation?” explains in detail that we must repent BEFORE Christ accepts us — and, before we can properly “accept” Him. The mere fact that some misuse and misapply a certain Biblical term is not enough reason for us not to use it. For instance, many preach a wrong gospel message (compare Galatians 1:6-9), or even a false “Jesus” (compare 2 Corinthians 11:4). This does not mean, however, that God’s Church should therefore refrain from using the terms “gospel” or “Jesus.” In regard to the expression, “accepting Jesus Christ as our personal Savior,” the Church has used similar language for a long time (as it has used, of course, the terms “gospel” or “Jesus” for a very long time). As early as 1948, Mr. Armstrong wrote about “our acceptance of [Christ’s] death, burial and resurrection,” and our belief “on Jesus Christ as personal Savior.” (Compare WCG’s old booklet on water baptism, copyrighted 1948, 1954, and 1972, pp. 11 and 15.) These expressions are Biblical. We understand, of course, that believing on Christ… A: In order to properly answer this question, we need to go back and review the biblical basis for a decision that the Worldwide Church of God made under Mr. Herbert Armstrong in 1974, involving divorce and remarriage. Prior to 1974, it had been the understanding of the Church that every marriage was bound in God’s eyes. This included civil marriages, whether or not the married couple “invited God into their lives,” and — arguably, it included even marriages of persons who didn’t even claim to believe in the God of the Bible. Mr. Armstrong explained our growth in Biblical knowledge regarding this point in a member letter, dated May 14, 1974: “God has revealed HIS LAW OF MARRIAGE — His TRUTH about marriage — God’s PURPOSE in marriage, its sanctity, its PERMANENCY — to His Church. And we applied that truth to ALL marriages, ASSUMING that God entered into every marriage, EVEN THOUGH GOD HAD NOT ENTERED INTO THE LIVES OF THOSE we SUPPOSED He had bound… Unconverted people have never let GOD enter their lives. They live APART from God — CUT OFF from God — because sin cuts one off from contact with God (see Isa. 59:2). When… A: Many Scriptures prohibit the charging of interest or usury in certain circumstances. For example, Exodus 22:25 states, in the Authorized Version, “If thou lend money to any of my people that is poor by thee, thou shalt not be to him as an usurer, neither shalt thou lay upon him usury.” The Hebrew word for “usury” is “neshek” or “neshech” and has the meaning of “biting” (Young’s Analytical Concordance). Its root word is “nashak” or “nashach.” Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance, under Nos. 5391 and 5392, gives the following explanation: “…to strike with a sting (as a serpent); fig. to oppress with interest on a loan.” Soncino points out: “That which ‘bites’ (nashach) like a snake. The victim of a snake does not at first feel the bite, but soon the wound swells and spreads over the whole body; likewise it is with usury: at first the borrower does not feel its pinch, but little by little it grows until it amounts to a crushing sum. Do not impose usury on the borrower in consideration of an extended time limit for repayment.” Commentaries disagree whether any kind of interest is prohibited, or just excessive interest (what we would call today “usury”). Also, depending on the… A: We are glad to. To understand all these passages in their proper context, we must realize that God has decided to call a few people during this day and age, to offer them salvation, while the overwhelming majority of mankind will be called at a later time — during the Millennium, and during the Second Resurrection and the Great White Throne Judgment period (Revelation 20:6, 11-12). Everyone will get his or her chance to respond to God, but everyone in his or her own order (compare 1 Corinthians 15:23). God has not preordained anyone to eternal death — those who are not called yet are not judged yet — they will be judged later, when their time of calling has come. The quote from the New KJV commentary conveys a blatantly false concept. The authors simply do not seem to understand God’s character, nor God’s purpose for mankind. God most certainly does not hate anyone, “before having done any good or evil” (Romans 9:11). Rightly understood, God does not hate anyone at all, but He does hate the evil that a person commits. In Romans 9:13, God explains that He CALLED Jacob, and that He did NOT CALL Esau at… A: In Matthew 12:40 Christ makes the statement, “For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth” (Authorized Version throughout). In John 2:19 He said, “Destroy this Temple, and in three days I will raise it up.” In John 2:21 it is noted: “But He spake of the Temple of His body.” 1) Was Christ dead for exactly 72 hours? In John 2:19, where Christ says, “Destroy this Temple, and in three days I will raise it up,” He is not speaking specifically of a time of exactly 72 hours counting from the time of His crucifixion. As we will review in this Q&A – by definition – the crucifixion occurred over several hours. It began about 9 am that Wednesday morning. Christ died about 3 pm that… A: The Bible is very explicit that we are to honor our parents at all times. For example, Exodus 20:12 and Ephesians 6:1-3 make this Christian duty very clear. In one of our recent Updates (Update #95), we explained that Jesus Christ honored His mother on a continuous basis. To “honor” or “remember” our mother just on one particular day in the year, while forgetting to do so in day-to-day living, would, of course, be wrong. The world tries to make up for the forgetfulness to always honor one’s parents by dedicating a day to mothers. As Christians, we are to honor our parents at all times! This fact alone, would not preclude a Christian from participating in Mother’s Day celebrations. However, the Bible makes it very clear that we are not to learn the religious ways or customs of the Gentiles, by embracing those customs in our own Christian lives. (Deuteronomy 12:29-32; Matthew 15:709, 2 Corinthians 6:14-17). The Church has long taught that we are not to keep holidays such as Christmas, Easter, New Year’s or Valentine’s Day because of their pagan origin and the embracing of those days by the Catholic Church in their religious worship. When reviewing the history… A: Matthew 12:38-40 reads as follows: “Then some of the scribes and Pharisees answered, saying, ‘Teacher, we want to see a sign from You.’ But He answered and said to them, ‘An evil and adulterous generation seeks after a sign, and no sign will be given to it except the sign of the prophet Jonah. For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.”” Note that Christ talked to the scribes and Pharisees, describing them as an “evil and adulterous generation.” He said that the only sign that would be given to IT was the sign of the prophet Jonah. As Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the sea monster, so Christ would be three days and three nights — 72 hours — in the grave. Christ’s statement goes further, however. He made clear that He would not stay in the grave for less than three days and three nights, and, that He would not stay longer in the grave than 72 hours. As the sea monster vomited Jonah alive onto dry…Free From The Law?
Q: Please explain what Christ means with the "open door" in Revelation 3:8. Is that door still open today, or has it been shut?
Q: Is it wrong or unbiblical to declare bankruptcy?
I noticed that you use the expression, "We must accept Jesus Christ as our personal Savior." This expression is used by many Protestant churches, to say that Christ accepts us as we are, without any need on our part to change. I know that you don't teach that, but wouldn't it be better to avoid using the expression to "accept Christ as our personal Savior"?
Q: Would the ministry of the Church of the Eternal God and of its affiliates in Canada and Great Britain perform a marriage between a "believer" and an "unbeliever"? Would they officiate over a marriage between two "unbelievers"? What are the Biblical principles that would apply in these cases?
Q: Should a Christian ever charge another person, including another Christian, "interest" or "usury"?
Q: Romans 9:13 states: "Jacob I have loved, but Esau I have hated." Malachi 1:3 states: "But Esau I have hated, And laid waste his mountains and his heritage For the jackals of the wilderness." The New KJV commentary points out: "The expression Esau have I hated cannot simply mean to love less but must mean, in the context of Malachi 1:1-5, that God has actually directed his wrath toward Esau and his descendants. The judgments upon Edom are positive judgments and not merely the absence of blessing. God displays His wrath upon the sins of Edom not in unholy rancor but in righteous judgment. He does the same with individuals." However, Galatians 2:6 states: "But from those who seemed to be something — whatever they were, it makes no difference to me; God shows personal favoritism to no man — for those who seemed to be something added nothing to me." Luke 20:21 confirms: "Then they asked Him, saying, 'Teacher, we know that You say and teach rightly, and You do not show personal favoritism, but teach the way of God in truth…'" The question is that, by loving Jacob and hating Esau, wasn't God showing favoritism when the references to Galatians 2 and Luke 20 show that God has no favorites? Can you please explain.
Q: In your Update (Update #99, in the Q&A section), you explain that Christ was in the grave for three days and three nights . Doesn't Christ also say that He was dead for three days? Since He died before He was placed into the grave, was He raised back to life and stayed alive in the grave for a while, before He walked out of the tomb?
We will address in this section the following questions in relation to these verses:
2) Was Christ in the tomb for exactly 72 hours?
3) How can we reconcile these two Scriptures since they appear to be contradictory?
4) Was Christ not dead the whole time He was in the tomb?Q: Should a Christian Observe Mother's Day?
Q: I have heard that Christ's miraculous birth was also a sign that He was the Messiah. If so, wouldn't this contradict Christ's statement in Matthew 12:39-40?
