Q&A – Page 94 – Church of the Eternal God

Would you please explain the meaning of the word "earthquakes" in Matthew 24:7? Does this word just refer to earthquakes, or is more involved?

August 26, 2005

In Matthew 24:7, Jesus Christ speaks about end-time events and warns His listeners: “For nation will rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom. And there shall be famines, pestilences, and earthquakes in various places.”

In Matthew 24:7, and in the parallel Scriptures of Mark 13:8 and Luke 21:11, the Greek word for “earthquakes” is “seismos,” meaning, according to Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance, No. 4578, “a commotion, i.e. (of the air) a gale, (of the ground) an earthquake–earthquake, tempest.”

The word “Seismology”–the study of earthquakes — is derived from the Greek, “seismos.” But in the Bible, the Greek word “seismos” applies also to a tempest in the air. For instance, note Matthew 8:24, which reads: “And suddenly a great tempest arose on the sea, so that that the boat was covered with the waves. But He [Christ] was asleep.” The Greek word for “tempest” is “seismos”–the same word as used in Matthew 24:7, which is translated there as “earthquakes.” In Matthew 8:24, it was not a small tempest, but “a great tempest,” which arose on the sea.

The Bible says that Lot was just or righteous. But did he not commit horrible sins? How can he then be called "righteous"?

August 19, 2005

It is correct that 2 Peter 2:6-8 refers to “righteous Lot,” and describes him, by extension, as a “godly” person. The entire passage reads: “[Since God turned] the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah into ashes, condemned them to destruction, making them an example to those who afterward would live ungodly; and delivered righteous Lot, who was oppressed by the filthy conduct of the wicked (for that righteous man, dwelling among them, tormented his righteous soul from day to day by seeing and hearing their lawless deeds)–then the Lord knows how to deliver the godly out of temptations and to reserve the unjust under punishment for the day of judgment.”

We must not forget that God spared Lot because He would not destroy the righteous with the wicked (compare Genesis 18:23). The two angels could not find ten righteous in Sodom (compare Genesis 18:32). Only Lot was willing to give them shelter, when they appeared in Sodom as strangers, while “all the people from every quarter” surrounded Lot’s house (Genesis 19:4), to “know them carnally” (verse 5). They did not realize, of course, that the men were angels. Since the Bible says that all of the men were present to act “wickedly” (verse 7), this might even suggest that Lot’s sons-in-law were present as well. Still, the angels were willing to spare Lot’s wife, Lot’s daughters, and even Lot’s sons-in-law (verse 12-15). There is no indication that Lot’s wife, his daughters or his sons-in-law were righteous, but God wanted to spare them for Lot’s sake. However, the sons-in-law did not flee and were consumed, and Lot’s wife died, too, when she looked back, as she apparently did not really want to leave Sodom (Genesis 19:26; compare Luke 17:28-33). We also get the impression from the account in Genesis that God spared Lot, to an extent, because of His righteous servant Abraham (compare Genesis 19:29), implying that Lot was not as righteous as Abraham.

I have some questions and concerns with daily Christian living. I know that God says in His Word that we should help the poor. Would donating my time or money to different worldly needy organizations be wrong?

August 12, 2005

The answer to your question, whether to send donations to organizations which help the poor, is one that requires a BALANCED approach. Considering the life of Jesus Christ, one must conclude that the focus of His life was in serving God. He put God FIRST. However, He also had great compassion on the poor: “‘…I have compassion on the multitude, because they have now continued with Me three days and have nothing to eat. And I do not want to send them away hungry, lest they faint on the way'” (Matthew 15:32).

Consider what Jesus said about the fruit of His efforts in a similar occurrence following His miraculous feeding of another great multitude of people: “Jesus answered them and said, ‘Most assuredly, I say to you, you seek Me, not because you saw the signs, but because you ate of the loaves and were filled'” (John 6:26).

Does a Christian go to Heaven after Death?

August 5, 2005

The Bible does not teach that when a Christian dies he goes to heaven. Let us be certain we understand the truth as pointed out in the Scriptures.

First, the Bible is very clear what happens to a person at the time of his or her death.

In Ecclesiastes 9:4-5 we find the following:

“But for him who is joined to all the living there is hope, for a living dog is better than a dead lion. For the living know that they shall die; But the dead know nothing, And they have no more reward, For the memory of them is forgotten.” Their memory (the faculty of remembering) ceases to exist (See the marginal notes in the Companion Bible).

Verse 6 continues: “Also their love, their hatred; and their envy have now perished…”

Psalm 146:3-4 illustrates that the day one dies, his thoughts perish.

(For a further discussion on this topic, see our booklet, “Do We Have an Immortal Soul?”)

Once a person dies, he no longer has a part with the living, as long as he remains dead!

Would you please explain Colossians 1:24?

July 29, 2005

Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ, who, when he was known as Saul, had been persecuting the true saints, was converted on the Road to Damascus. Christ commanded Ananias to baptize him, so that he could receive the Holy Spirit, telling Ananias: “I will show him [Paul] how many things he must suffer for My name’s sake” (Acts 9:16).

Paul, throughout his converted life, understood the fact that he had to go through much suffering and through many trials. At one time, God refused to heal him of a sickness, and Paul responded: “Therefore I take pleasure in infirmities, in reproaches, in needs, in persecutions, in distresses, for Christ’s sake. For when I am weak, then I am strong” (2 Corinthians 12:10).

Paul understood that he received the strength to continue in trials, through Jesus Christ Who lived in him through the Holy Spirit. He said in Galatians 2:20: “I have been crucified with Christ; it is no longer I who live, but Christ lives in me…”

What did Christ mean when He said that we are to take up our cross, when we want to follow Him?

July 22, 2005

Christ used the metaphor of taking up the cross in numerous places, for instance, in Matthew 10:38 and in Matthew 16:24; in Mark 8:34 and in Mark 10:21; as well as in Luke 9:23 and Luke 14:27.

Especially Matthew 10:38 is interesting, in view of its context with verse 39:

“And he who does not take his cross and follow after Me is not worthy of Me. He who finds his life will lose it, and he who loses his life for My sake will find it.”

We may understand WHY Jesus uses this particular analogy, because He did literally bear His own “cross” as He was led to His own execution! We read in John 19: “And He, bearing His cross, went out to a place called the Place of a Skull, which is called in Hebrew, Golgotha, where they crucified Him…” (verses 17-18).

Would you please explain Jesus' statement in John 2:19, "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up…"? Is this statement, as a direct quote of Christ, to be believed as presented to us in the English language?

July 15, 2005

Let us read the Scripture in context, by quoting John 2:18-22:

“(18) So the Jews answered and said to Him, ‘What sign do You show to us, since you do these things?’ (19) Jesus answered and said to them, ‘Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.’ (20) Then the Jews said, ‘It has taken forty-six years to build this temple, and will You raise it up in three days?’ (21) But He was speaking of the temple of His body. (22) Therefore, when He had risen from the dead, His disciples remembered that He had said this to them; and they believed the Scripture and the word which Jesus had said.”

There is no reason to believe that the above-cited translation is incorrect. However, we must understand, in light of the other Biblical evidence, what this passage does and does not say. Some use this passage to teach that Christ rose Himself up FROM THE DEAD. They claim that Christ, the Son of God, never died, but that only His “human mantle” did. They teach that the Son of God was the second member of an immortal and unalterable Trinity, and that He therefore could not have died. They postulate that Christ–the Son of God–raised up the human mortal Jesus. This ABOMINABLE HERESY is nowhere taught in the Bible! The Bible makes very clear that God is NOT a TRINITY; that Jesus Christ was the Son of God; and that HE DIED (For more information, please read our free booklet, “Is God a Trinity?”). It was God the Father who raised the DEAD Christ FROM THE DEAD.

What did John the Baptist mean by the phrase, "baptism with fire," as mentioned in Matthew 3:11?

July 8, 2005

Notice what exactly John said in Matthew 3:11: “I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance, but He who is coming after me … will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and with fire.”

As a part of his ministry, John was baptizing “with water unto repentance” (verse 11). He required that we must “bear fruits worthy of repentance” (verse 8). In comparison, Christ would be coming to also baptize, not just unto repentance, but also, with the Holy Spirit and with fire!

We, of course, are all very familiar with the first part of that statement John had made, in reference to the baptism Christ would bring. One receives the Holy Spirit after repentance, the belief in Christ’s sacrifice, and being baptized with water. In the process of baptism, prior to being submerged under water, one pronounces his or her repentance of past sins, and one’s belief in Christ’s sacrifice and one’s acceptance of Christ as his or her personal Savior. Following the actual submersion under water and being brought out of that grave of water, which event pictures the washing away of all our past sins, the ministers of God lay hands upon the person being baptized and he or she receives God’s Holy Spirit.

What is the meaning of the two loaves, mentioned in Leviticus 23 regarding the observance of Pentecost?

July 1, 2005

Here is the specific reference in question: “‘You shall bring from your dwellings two wave loaves of two-tenths of an ephah. They shall be of fine flour; they shall be baked with leaven. They are the firstfruits to the LORD'” (Leviticus 23:17). The vital key found in this Scripture that will lead to understanding what (or more specifically, who) is being represented by these two loaves appears in the last sentence: “‘They are the FIRSTFRUITS to the LORD.'”

As God introduced the observance of this Feast Day to the children of Israel, we note that several different names were used in explanation: “‘…the Feast of Harvest, the firstfruits of your labors which you have sown in the field'” (Exodus 23:16); “‘And You shall observe the Feast of Weeks, of the firstfruits of wheat harvests…'” (Exodus 34:22); “‘Also on the day of the firstfruits, when you bring a new grain offering to the LORD at your Feast of Weeks…'” (Numbers 28:26). (Compare, also, Deuteronomy 16:9-12.)

Please explain Revelation 22:15

June 24, 2005

It is important that we understand the time setting of Revelation 22:15. Before discussing the passage in detail, we need to realize that it describes a time AFTER the heavenly Jerusalem has descended to earth. We read earlier, in Revelation 21:1-2: “Now I saw a new heaven and a new earth, for the first heaven and the first earth had passed away. Also there was no more sea. Then I, John, saw the holy city, New Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband.” Verse 10 continues to explain that “the great city, the holy Jerusalem, [was] descending out of heaven from God.” Verse 27 continues that “there shall by no means enter it anything that defiles, or causes an abomination or a lie, but only those who are written in the Lamb’s Book of Life.”