Q&A – Page 86 – Church of the Eternal God

Would you please explain 1 Corinthians 15:29, speaking of "baptism for the dead." Are we to be baptized for those who have already died?

August 25, 2006

Certainly not. Our free booklet, “Baptism–A Requirement for Salvation,”
explains in detail that only adult LIVING persons are to be baptized,
after they repent of their sins and believe in the Sacrifice of Jesus
Christ. A person who has died, cannot repent and believe in anything,
as long as he is dead. The reason is that a dead person knows nothing
(Ecclesiastes 9:5). Our free booklet, “Do We Have an Immortal Soul?,”
explains that a person who dies is without consciousness–he or his
soul does not go to heaven or hell, because he–the person–IS the
soul. As long as he is alive, he is a living soul, and when he dies, he
has become a dead soul.

As Romans 6:3-4 explains, baptism–the
total immersion of the person under water–points at the figurative
death of the person. He “dies,” spiritually speaking, in the watery
grave. His old man dies (verse 6), and a new man arises out of the
watery grave (Colossians 3:9-10). In a sense, the new man is
“resurrected,” figuratively speaking, from the spiritual dead.

With

Would you please explain Psalm 7:11, which says that God is angry with the wicked every day. Why would God be angry?

August 18, 2006July 10, 2019

Although in most cases, human anger is wrong, there is nothing wrong with godly indignation or wrath, which is always righteous. But we need to understand the nature of godly anger, and against whom or what it is directed.

The context of Psalm 7 shows that “Cush, a Benjamite,” persecuted innocent David. According to the Soncino commentary, Cush is a designation for King Saul. David expresses to God his innocence (vv. 3-5, 8), and asks God to take care of his situation. He points out that God will rise in His anger (verse 6), and that He “hath indignation every day” (according to Soncino). The New King James Bible ADDED the words, “with the wicked,” which do not appear in the original Hebrew. However, the addition is in accordance with the intended meaning.

Would you please explain 1 John 3:2. Does this Scripture tell us that we cannot know what our destiny or potential is?

August 11, 2006

No, it does not mean that at all. Quite to the contrary, we are
clearly told in Scripture, so that we CAN know, what our destiny is. We
read in Ephesians 3:14-19 that it is our destiny to become spirit
members within the Family of God, and that we KNOW that we are to be
filled with “all the fullness of God.”

1 John 3:2 does not tell
us something different. In fact, this passage CONFIRMS, rightly
understood, that we DO know what our destiny is. When we read this
passage in context, it states:

“Beloved, now we are children of
God; and it has not yet been revealed what we shall be, but we KNOW
that when He is revealed, we shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as
He is.”

This passage tells us that we KNOW that when Christ is
revealed or manifested at His Second Coming, we will be LIKE Him.
Christ will return in glory (Matthew 24:30), and so we, too, will
appear or be manifested with Him in glory (Romans 8:17). Right now, we
are not yet filled with God’s glory, as we are still flesh and blood.
That is, it has not yet been revealed or manifested what we shall be,
because we are not yet powerful glorious God beings. But we do KNOW

Q: Please explain Matthew 5:20, where Christ says that we will not enter the Kingdom of God if our righteousness does not exceed the righteousness of the scribes and the Pharisees.

August 3, 2006

A: For an in-depth Bible study as to HOW, exactly, our righteousness must exceed the “righteousness” of the scribes and the Pharisees, including their actions, thoughts and motives, please look up and study carefully all the Scriptures quoted in this Q&A, especially those passages in which Jesus Christ condemns the scribes and the Pharisees for their concept of “righteousness.”

We need to understand the types of “righteousness” Christ is referring to in Matthew 5:20. The Bible says that all of God’s commandments constitute righteousness (Psalm 119:172), and that we sin if we transgress just one of His commandments (1 John 3:4, Authorized Version; James 2:10-12). However, Christ was not saying that we will never enter God’s Kingdom if we occasionally sin. If that were the case, then NO ONE would be able to enter God’s Kingdom, as WE ALL sin from time to time (Romans 3:9-10; James 3:2; 1 John 1:8-10). But we can obtain forgiveness for our sins through repentance and faith in the Sacrifice of Jesus Christ, who died FOR US, and who can and will make us righteous, by living in us, as we will explain.

You are teaching that the Holy Spirit is not a God being or a Person. What then, exactly, IS the Holy Spirit?

July 28, 2006

God’s Holy Spirit is foremost the POWER of God, emanating from both the Father and the Son. But it is also the MIND of God, including all the characteristics of God Himself. When God’s Holy Spirit dwells in us, we are to change, by replacing our human nature with the nature of God (1 Samuel 10:6; Romans 8:13), enabling us to follow God and to be obedient to Him (Numbers 14:24; Ezekiel 11:19-20; 36:27; 1 Peter 1:22).

Let us notice several Scriptures which describe in detail God’s characteristics, which are being conveyed to us through the Holy Spirit dwelling within us. Please consider that all of these characteristics are GOD’S–that is, when we read that God’s Spirit is a Spirit of Power, it is actually GOD’s Power that is emanating from God (both the Father and the Son) through the Holy Spirit:

You state in your booklet, "Jesus Christ–A Great Mystery," on pages 83 and 84, that the word for "Sabbath" in Matthew 28:1 is derived from the plural form of the Greek word (i.e., "sabbata") and should be translated "Sabbaths." However, the Greek Interlinear Translation shows that the Greek word is in the singular–"sabbaton," not "sabbata"–and it should therefore be translated in the singular ("Sabbath," not "Sabbaths"). Also, in the same phrase in Matthew 28:1, the Greek word for "week" is "sabbaton," but it seems to have nothing to do with the weekly Sabbath.

July 21, 2006August 22, 2016

You are referring to the following statements in our above-mentioned booklet:

“In addition, Matthew 28:1 also reveals–correctly translated–that there were actually two ‘Sabbaths’ during the crucifixion week, a weekly Sabbath and an annual Sabbath. Cockrell points out: ‘Matthew makes it plain that two Sabbaths had passed since Jesus was crucified. The KJV [Authorized Version] has this rendering: “In the end of the Sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulcher” (Matth. 28:1). On this verse nearly all translators have allowed tradition to control their translation. It is not “Sabbath” but “Sabbaths” in the Greek text (the genitive case and the plural number). The verse properly translated would read: “In the end of the Sabbaths…” This allows for an annual Sabbath on Thursday and a regular Sabbath on Saturday.

Would you please explain Christ's statement in John 8:51?

July 14, 2006

In the passage in question, Jesus made the following comment:

“… if anyone keeps My word he shall never see death.”

He
elaborated on this statement in additional passages, such as John 8:52:
“… If anyone keeps My word he shall never taste death.” In referring
to our participation at the annual Passover service, He stated, in John
6:50, 58: “This is the bread which comes down from heaven, that one may
eat of it and not die… He who eats this bread will live forever.”

We
also read, in Hebrews 11:5, that ancient Enoch “was taken away so that
he did not see death.” But this does not mean that Enoch did not die.
We are told, in Hebrews 11:39, that all the spiritual giants of faith,
including Enoch, have not, so far, received the promises–including the

Who are the modern-day Gibeonites?

July 7, 2006July 24, 2019

The Gibeonites, who belonged to the Hivites (who were descendants from Canaan, the son of Ham, 1 Chronicles 1:8, 13-15), were one of the peoples which had occupied the Promised Land, prior to Israel’s arrival (Exodus 3:8). God had commanded the Israelites not to make a covenant with any of these people. Rather, He wanted them expelled from the land (Exodus 23:28, 32-33). However, under Joshua, the Gibeonites, pretending to be a people from far away, tricked the Israelites into acting hastily by making a covenant with them to let them live amongst them (Joshua 9). In fact, the capital of the Gibeonites or Hivites was “Gibeon,” a town situated on a rocky eminence, about six miles northwest from Jerusalem and four miles from Bethel, where the modern village of El-Jib now stands (Commentary on the Whole Bible, by Jamieson, Fausset and Brown, page 174; Young’s Analytical Concordance to the Bible, under “Gibeon”).

Would you please explain the procedure for conflict resolution between brethren, as set forth in Matthew 18:15-20?

June 30, 2006

If there is one command by Christ which has been more often violated
in the Church than most others, it is perhaps the procedure for
conflict resolution between brethren, as set forth in Matthew 18. We
might think that in a given situation this procedure might not apply,
or that there are other ways to deal with a perceived or real problem.
However, experience has shown time and again that circumventing the
godly-inspired procedure for the purpose of resolving problems between
members has ALWAYS caused unnecessary harm.

Let us therefore
carefully and prayerfully review the procedure, and let us make every
effort to apply it, as instructed in God’s Word:

When a member
thinks that there is a real or perceived problem between him and
another person in the Church, which is either caused by the other
person or by the member himself, what should the member do?

Step #1:

Matthew
18:15 instructs the member: “Moreover if your brother sins against you,
go and tell him his fault between you and him ALONE.”

As we can
see, at this stage, there is no minister, close friend or even a mate

Why don't we see more spiritual gifts in the Church of God today?

June 23, 2006

It depends what is meant by “spiritual gifts.”

Some equate
“spiritual gifts” with magnificent spectacular miracles and wonders,
such as public healings or the calling down of fire from heaven. It is
true, of course, that Jesus Christ, when He was here on earth,
performed many spectacular miracles (Acts 2:22), and that some of the
early apostles of the New Testament Church were able to do likewise
(Acts 2:43: 5:12). We read that Christ did many more miracles than have
been recorded in the Bible (John 21:25). We are also informed that
people were even healed when Peter’s shadow fell on them (Acts
5:14-16). We are told that at the very end time, just prior to the “Day
of the Lord” and Christ’s return, His Church will be given the power to
perform spectacular miracles (Joel 2:28-31), and the Two Witnesses will
have the power to call down fire from heaven, when and if necessary
(Revelation 11:3-6).

We should also realize, however, that God
has wisely decided not to grant such spectacular powers to the Church
or His disciples all the time, because of very important reasons. We
read that John the Baptist, even though he was the greatest of all men