Q&A – Page 84 – Church of the Eternal God

Was Jesus Christ always the Son–even prior to His human birth?

January 26, 2007

The Bible reveals that Jesus Christ was always the Son of God; that is, the second member of the God Family. However, the Bible also reveals that Christ BECAME the Son of Man when He gave up His divine glory and became a human being.

Hebrews 1:2 states that God “has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds.” The very next verse (verse 3) then describes Jesus, God’s Son, in this way: “who being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when He had by Himself purged our sins, sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high…”

From these two verses in Hebrews 1, we learn that God made the worlds through His Son–John 1 verifies this! In other words, God the FATHER made the worlds through His SON, as Hebrews 1:2 testifies. We also see that Jesus is described as being an exact image of God–a description that is, by itself, an indication of a father and a son. Add to this the fact that Jesus said that “‘…My Father is greater than I'” (Compare John 14:28).

You teach that in the Old Testament, the Hebrew word, "Elohim," which is translated as "God" in most English Bibles, is a plural word, referring to more than one God Being in the God Family. But Jeremiah 31:1 seems to contradict this assertion. Please explain.

January 19, 2007

It is important that we understand correctly the meaning and usage of the Hebrew word “Elohim,” as many teach that the word “Elohim” either ALWAYS conveys a singular meaning, or that it ALWAYS conveys a plural meaning. However, both of these teachings are WRONG!

It is correct that the Bible teaches that God is a Family, presently consisting of TWO immortal God Beings, called in Scripture God the Father and the Son of God, Jesus Christ. It is also correct that the Hebrew word, “Elohim,” translated as “God,” describes the God Family. However, the Bible does NOT teach that the Hebrew word, “Elohim,” ALWAYS refers to more than one God Being in the God Family. A thorough study of the Old Testament reveals that the word “Elohim” CAN refer to the entire God Family, but, depending on the context, it can ALSO refer to EITHER ONE of the God Beings within the God Family.

Could you explain the correct original order and number of the books of the Bible?

January 12, 2007

Virtually all English Bibles, which we have today, do NOT accurately
set forth the order or divisions of the Biblical books, as originally
maintained and inspired by God.

THE OLD TESTAMENT

The Hebrew Bible of the Old Testament consisted originally of 24 books. It is to be divided into three sections:

(1) The Law (5 books of Moses)

(2) The Prophets (8 books)

— The former prophets—Joshua, Judges, Samuel, Kings (4 books)

— The latter prophets—Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, 12 Minor Prophets (4 books)

(3) The Writings (11 books)

— Psalms, Proverbs, Job, Song of Songs (4 books)

— Ruth, Lamentations, Ecclesiastes, Esther (4 books)

— Daniel, Ezra/Nehemiah, and Chronicles (3 books)

It
is fairly established today that the Hebrew Bible originally consisted
of 24 books (Compare, The Bible as Literature, The Barnes & Noble
Outline Series, p. 19; The Jerusalem Bible, p. xii: “The Jewish Bible
thus consists of ‘twenty-four books’”; Prof. Felix Just, of Loyola
Marymount University: “Jews count 24″; Encyclopedia Britannica,

The Bible teaches that Christ became flesh at His First Coming. Yet you say that Christ already appeared as a human being in Old Testament times. Did He already become flesh on those occasions? Was He still flesh–or did He change to flesh–after His resurrection?

January 5, 2007

John 1:1 tells us that the “Word” was God. The “Word” is a reference
to Jesus Christ (compare Revelation 19:13; 1 John 1:1-3). John 1:14
tells us that Jesus Christ, the “Word,” “became flesh and dwelt among
us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the
Father, full of grace and truth.”

Jesus Christ, the Son of God,
existed as a God being long before the events took place, which are
described in John 1:14–that is, long before He “became flesh.”
Philippians 2:5-11 tells us that Christ, who was “in the form of God,”
took “the form of a bond servant” and came “in the likeness of men.”
Hebrews 2:14 confirms that Jesus partook of flesh and blood, so that He
could die. As long as He was an immortal Spirit being, He could not die.

We

Is it true that the design of the European flag has been adopted from a picture of the "Virgin Mary"?

December 29, 2006

This is apparently correct. The historical background of the design
of the European flag, and its biblical significance, is quite
interesting. The Catholic News Agency, Zenit, wrote the following on
December 7, 1999:

“December 8 is a very special day for Europe:
in 1955, on that day, the European Ministers’ delegates officially
adopted the European flag designed by Arsene Heitz… The decision was
taken following the 1950 European Council’s… convocation of a
competition to design the flag of the newborn European Community…: 12
stars on a blue background.

“Recently Heitz revealed to a French
magazine the reason for his inspiration. At that time he was reading
the history of the Blessed Virgin’s apparitions in Paris’ Rue du Bac,
known today as the Virgin of the Miraculous Medal. According to the
artist, he thought of the 12 stars in a circle on a blue background,
exactly the way it is represented in traditional iconography of this
image of the Immaculate Conception…

“According to Javier
Paredes, Professor of Contemporary History at the University of Alcala
in Spain, in statements sent to ZENIT, ‘Heitz listens to God in his

Does God work out His Master Plan for Man according to a pre-determined time table?

December 22, 2006

Perhaps no other single event captures the focus of religionists
more than that of the return of Jesus Christ. From the first generation
of the Church of God until now, people have been utterly convinced that
Christ would return in their own lifetime. That has led some into
bitter disappointment and even an absolute abandonment and rejection of
their faith!

In spite of what people concoct in their own
imaginations, is God actually working out His plan according to a
pre-determined time line?

Let’s see what God reveals in His
written Word, and in doing so, let the Bible teach us a true
understanding and a balanced perspective on this important question.

Scientists
have examined the make-up of this universe, and in their quests, they
have gained remarkable insight about the physical creation of God. One
extraordinary discovery is the approximate age of the universe—about 14
billion years!

With that perspective in mind, consider that the
Bible introduces God’s creation of mankind, and this event is but a
tiny moment in time from the galactic standpoint.

In this
beginning period for the creation that God accomplished that is

Hebrews 9:27 states that "it is appointed for men to die once, but after this the judgment." But aren’t there several instances in the Bible where some were resurrected to life and died again? They did not enter into judgment after they died the first time–did they?

December 15, 2006

Indeed there are numerous examples of resurrections, both in the Old
and the New Testament! For instance, 2 Kings 13:21 relates the record
of a dead person who “revived and stood on his feet,” when the bones of
Elisha touched him. There was no magic associated with Elisha’s bones
but it was a demonstration of God’s power and His approval of
Elisha–showing that he died as a servant of God, even though he died
from a sickness (verse 14). Also, John 11:38-44 records the story of
the resurrection of Lazarus who had been dead for several days. We also
read, in Luke 8:49-56, that Christ brought a dead girl back to life. In
the case of the young girl, we read that Christ commanded the parents
“that she be given something to eat” (verse 55) — proving that this

How can you really prove what the Bible teaches?

December 8, 2006March 23, 2020

(Español: ¿Cómo se puede demostrar realmente lo que enseña la Biblia?)

The original writings of the Bible are, in fact, God’s infallible Word. However, in the face of such myriads of beliefs—all claiming the Bible as their source, most people dismiss the real authority of the Book that God has inspired.

Both Catholics and Protestants use the Bible as the basis for what they believe and teach. Various translations and versions of the Bible are available, and these differing accounts do reflect the bias of those organizations and individuals who have authored them.

However, the Bible transcends both language and translation issues. For example, consider the record found in Acts 2, where the disciples on the Day of Pentecost were led by God’s Holy Spirit to proclaim the Gospel. In particular, note what occurred for those who heard this message:

Would you please explain Mark 11:24. We are told in this passage that we will receive from God all things, if we only believe. Is this promise conditional, and if it is, what are those conditions?

December 1, 2006

As we point out in our booklet, “Teach Us To Pray!”, Christ’s
promise in Mark 11:24 is indeed subject to several conditions. In this
passage, Christ is emphasizing the absolute necessity of manifesting
living, unwavering and obedient faith in our lives (compare verses
22-23). Without faith that God will do what we ask Him for, we cannot
expect to receive anything from Him (compare James 1:6-8). But godly
faith alone is not sufficient, either. As explained in our booklet,
additional necessary aspects of successful prayer include the need to
ask; to ask in faith; to pray boldly; to keep God’s Commandments; to
bear the right kind of Christian fruit in our lives; to pray in
Christ’s name; and to pray always.

Another additional extremely
important and all-encompassing condition for successful prayer is the
necessity to pray in accordance with God’s Will (1 John 5:14). This
requires that we learn to understand and agree with God’s Will for us
(Ephesians 5:17; Romans 12:2). In other words, God must reveal His Will
to us (Ephesians 1:9).

Generally, God has shown us His Will for
us. God wills that we live godly lives (1 Thessalonians 4:3, 7) and

Would you please explain the meaning of the terms, "latter days," "last days," "time of the end," "end of the world," "day of the LORD," "in that day," and the "time of Jacob’s trouble."

November 24, 2006July 12, 2016

When trying to understand Biblical prophecy, it is critical that we are familiar with the meaning of certain key prophetic phrases. For instance, all these terms listed in the Question have a FUTURE prophetic application. This means that when we read a passage in the Old or New Testament, which uses one of these phrases, we should recognize that the passage refers to the future!

Here is an overview of the meaning of these phrases:

The LATTER DAYS

When we come across the term “the latter days” (in Hebrew, “acharith” for “latter”), we are being introduced to events which will happen at the end of this age or present civilization, including the first resurrection or the “resurrection of the just,” and the beginning of the Millennium.