How are we to view Hebrew Poetry in the Bible? (Part 1)

The Old Testament of the Bible contains Hebrew Poetry, but it is not to be compared with the kind of today’s poetry which rhymes at the end of each verse. Rather, Hebrew Poetry is designed to express more clearly and by emphasis certain aspects of the truth. It is important to realize when and how Hebrew Poetry is used, so that we do not misunderstand the intended meaning of a particular passage.

In this series, we will discuss in depth the beauty and wisdom of inspired Hebrew poetry. It can be generally described as PARALLELISM. In Hebrew, the rhyme is the repetition of thoughts or the extension of similar thoughts.

In this Q&A, we will show biblical examples of the concept of Synonymous Parallelism. In subsequent Q&A’s, we will discuss additional concepts within Hebrew Poetry.

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Does Isaiah 65:17 mean that we will not remember family members after the resurrections?

The emphasis in this verse is on life in the time that is beyond this current age:

“‘For behold, I create new heavens and a new earth; And the former shall not be remembered or come to mind.’”

As a first consideration in answering this question, it is important to understand that this world, its society and its ways are under the dominance of Satan (compare John 12:31; 2 Corinthians 4:4; 1 John 5:19). Jesus Christ told His disciples that He had “‘…overcome the world’” (John 16:33), and John adds: “…For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil” (1 John 3:8).

Christians have this challenge regarding the present age:

“And you He made alive, who were dead in trespasses and sins, in which you once walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit who now works in the sons of disobedience, among whom also we all once conducted ourselves in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, just as the others” (Ephesians 2:1-3).

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Is our salvation assured, or is it a big question mark in God’s eyes? Did He only give us a small measure of His Holy Spirit which may just barely enable us to overcome and inherit salvation?

Perhaps surprisingly to some of our readers, the answer to all of these questions is, “No.” Let us understand.

We read in Titus 3:4-6: “But when the kindness and the love of God our Savior toward man appeared… according to His grace He saved us, through the washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit [which] He poured out on us ABUNDANTLY through Jesus Christ our Savior…”

We read in 1 Peter 1:3: “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who according to His ABUNDANT mercy has begotten us again to a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead.”

We read in 2 Peter 1:10-11: “Therefore, brethren, be even more diligent to make your calling and election sure, for if you do these things you will NEVER stumble, for so an entrance will be supplied to you ABUNDANTLY into the everlasting kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ.”

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Why is the “Law of Jealousy” no longer valid, and are there any spiritual lessons which we can derive from it?

In our Q&A on the “law of jealousy,” we pointed out that this law was a “ritualistic procedure,” which is no longer applied in its literal sense today. We stated that “In Numbers 5:11-31, God gave Old Testament Israel a supernatural means of determining whether a wife had committed adultery or not, although she had not been caught, and no witness was present (Numbers 5:13). When ‘the spirit of jealousy’ came upon the husband, so that he suspected a transgression of his wife, the husband could bring his wife to the priest, and he had to bring at the same time the ‘grain offering of jealousy’ (Numbers 5:15)… The priest gave the woman ‘holy’ or ‘bitter’ water to drink, after she had denied, under oath, any transgression. God then saw to it, that her belly would swell, if she was in deed guilty.”

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Does God hear everyone’s prayers?

The astounding truth of the Bible is that generally, He does not hear, nor does He answer the prayers of just anyone. In fact, at this time and throughout human history, only a small proportion of people have had the kind of relationship with God in which their prayers would be heard by Him!

In the very beginning messages of Jesus Christ, He taught about praying, and throughout His ministry, He continued to teach His own disciples how to pray. His example gives us an important key to God hearing our prayers, and what is recorded in the Book of Hebrews about Christ is vital for us to understand:

“who, in the days of His flesh, when He had offered up prayers and supplications, with vehement cries and tears to Him who was able to save Him from death, and was heard because of His godly fear, though He was a Son, yet He learned obedience by the things which He suffered. And having been perfected, He became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him” (Hebrews 5:7-9).

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Why do we read about the Kingdom of God, the Kingdom of the Father, and the Kingdom of Christ? Are these separate and distinct Kingdoms?

The Bible does indeed speak of God’s Kingdom in different ways. But as we will see, there is no contradiction, nor are there separate or distinct Kingdoms.

Let us note several examples where the Bible speaks of the Kingdom of GOD:

In Mark 10:15, 25 we read that we must receive and enter the Kingdom of GOD. Mark 14:25 quotes Christ saying that He will drink wine in the kingdom of GOD. He states in Luke 4:43 that He came to preach the kingdom of GOD. He adds in Luke 6:20 that the poor are blessed because theirs is the kingdom of GOD.

In Luke 7:28 He explains that everyone who will be in the Kingdom of GOD will be greater than any human being, including John the Baptist. (Human beings—flesh and blood—cannot inherit the kingdom of GOD, compare 1 Corinthians 15:50. As long as they are flesh and blood , they cannot enter it. They must be changed, compare verses 51-54. They must be born of water and Spirit, to be able to enter the kingdom of GOD, compare John 3:5. As long as they are not born of the Spirit, they are flesh (verse 6), and unless born again, they cannot see the kingdom of GOD (verse 3)). 

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Does Ephesians 4:11-12 indicate that “teacher” is an ordained office or rank in the Church?

Ephesians 4:11-12 states the following: “And He Himself gave some to be apostles, some prophets, some evangelists, and some pastors and teachers, for the equipping of the saints for the work of ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ…”

Even though “teachers” is listed together with the offices of the ministry, including apostle, prophet, evangelist and pastor, what was the original intent of this passage and the inclusion of “teachers”?

Looking at the qualifications of a bishop (literally, an overseer) or an elder (compare New International Version) will help us to clarify this issue.

1 Timothy 3:1-7 states:

“This is a faithful saying: If a man desires the position of a bishop [“elder,” New International Version], he desires a good work. A bishop [“elder”] then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, temperate, sober-minded, of good behaviour, hospitable, able to teach; not given to wine, not violent, not greedy for money, but gentle, not quarrelsome, not covetous; one who rules his own house well, having his children in submission with all reverence (for if a man does not know how to rule his own house, how will he take care of the church of God?); not a novice, lest being puffed up with pride he fall into the same condemnation as the devil. Moreover he must have a good testimony among those who are outside, lest he fall into reproach and the snare of the devil.”

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Is the Holy Spirit, which dwells in converted Christians, the Spirit of the Father or of Christ, or of both?

This question is related to the issue of “single procession” or “double procession” of the Holy Spirit, which is hotly debated in orthodox Christianity. For instance, while the Roman Catholic or Latin Church believes and teaches that the Holy Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son, the (Greek) Orthodox Eastern Church believes and teaches […]

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What does the Bible say about marriage prohibitions?

God created marriage as a union between a man and a woman. This would exclude, for instance, marriage relationships between two men, or two women; nor would it allow polygamy.

In the booklet,  “‘In the Beginning…’ Answers to Questions from Genesis,” by the Worldwide Church of God, copyright 1980, the following is stated about polygamy:

“God never approved or sanctioned the practice of polygamy. He did permit it in the law of Moses–just as He allowed divorce because of the hardness of man’s heart (Matt. 19:8). Nevertheless, according to the Bible, the ideal marital state is one husband and one wife who become one flesh in marriage for life. God gave Adam one wife (Gen. 2:24). Jesus also said that from the beginning it was God’s will that a man leave his parents and cleave to his wife–not wives–and the two of them would become one flesh (Matt. 19:4-9). In the New Testament, a minister or a spiritual leader is to set the right example and have only one wife (I Tim. 3:2). In addition to the scriptural admonition, polygamy is against the laws of the United States and most other countries. Romans 13:1-7 states that Christians are to obey the laws of the land.”

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